Kem (Kam)/Kem.t (Kam.t/Kemet)/Kemmau (Kammau): Open to interpretation?

The goal of the present posting is precisely that, to find out if the assumptive premise of the question at hand can withstand linguistic scrutiny. Ancient Egyptian, like any other language, has grammatic rules that have to be adhered to; there is no reason to assume that this underlying logic doesn't take hold in Egyptian, and hence, warrants dropping all commonsense when it comes to treating